• The line protocol of the local router is now up.
• The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
• No clock rate has been set on the DCE interface.
• The VTP domain names are different.
• Check the log to see what software components are producing the excess traffic.
• The packet is routed to R1 and then forwarded out Fa0/0 on R1.
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.
• The destination host address in an ACL statement is incorrect.
• divide-and-conquer
• The command was entered on router R1.
• The ACL is applied to the wrong interface, but the right direction.
• It will show network 172.16.3.0 learned from RB.
• large failure domain • single point of failure.
• password mismatch for PPP authentication
• The router interface is in the wrong subnet.
• The EIGRP process number on R2 is incorrect.
• Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.20.
• There is an addressing problem on the link between routers R2 and R3.
• Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the RTA router LAN interface is on.
• It should be performed when all switch Cisco IOS versions are upgraded dan • It should be done when the network is performing at normal activity levels.
1. • 60
2.• The new commands are added to the end of the current Managers ACL.
3. • Inbound ACLs deny packets before routing lookups are required.
4. • Port 80 should be specified in the ACL.
5. • informational
6. • 172.16.31.77
• 172.16.31.78
7. • 0.0.15.255
8. • specifying internal hosts for NAT
• identifying traffic for QoS
9. • Create an access list permitting only echo reply and destination unreachable packets from the outside.
10• A router automatically reloads in 30 minutes.
11. • 192.168.20.16 to 192.168.20.31
12. • access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
13. • Standard ACLs are usually placed so that all packets go through the network and are filtered at the destination.
• Standard ACLs filter based on source address only, and must be placed near the destination if other traffic is to flow.
• Extended ACLs filter with many possible factors, and they allow only desired packets to pass through the network if placed near the source.
14. • access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.3.77 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 101 permit ip 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
15. • access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 56 permit any
16. • Router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.25 0.0.0.0 eq telnet
Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip any any
Router(config)# int s0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
Router(config-if)# int fa0/0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
17. • access-list 101 permit tcp 10.220.158.10 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.3.224 eq 80
18. • 0.0.0.31
19. • Use only Secure Shell (SSH) on the vty lines.
20. • A large amount of ICMP traffic is being denied at the interface, which can be an indication of a DoS
1. • They can support multiple routed protocols
• They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
• They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
2.• A distance vector routing protocol is used.
• Routing updates broadcast every 30 seconds.
• Hop count is the only metric used for route selection.
3. • The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
4.• Suboptimal paths will be selected.
• Network convergence may be affected.
5. • 90
6. • RIP is the routing protocol configured.
• The metric for this route is 2.
7.• RTA and RTB will accept updates from each other.
8. • RTP
9. • RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0
10. • the use of variable length subnet masks
11. • the calculated metric for the destination network
12. • It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.
13. • by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
14. • ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
15. • every 30 seconds
16.• RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol.
• RIPv1 does not support VLSM.
17. • EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm.
• EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key.
18. • when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
19. • 15 hops
20. • A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
21. • RIPv2 is configured on this router.
1. A network engineer is implementing a network design using VLSM for network 192.168.1.0/24. After subnetting the network, the engineer has decided to take one of the subnets, 192.168.1.16/28 and subnet it further to provide for point-to-point serial link addresses. What is the maximum number of subnets that can be created from the 192.168.1.16/28 subnet for serial connections?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 6
• 8
• 16
2. When running NAT, what is the purpose of address overloading?
• limit the number of hosts that can connect to the WAN
• allow multiple inside addresses to share a single global address
• force hosts to wait for an available address
• allow an outside host to share inside global addresses
3. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
• reduced routing table size • dynamic address assignment
• automatic route redistribution
• reduced routing update traffic • automatic summarization at classful boundaries
4. How does a router keep track of which inside local address is used when NAT overload is configured?
• The router adds an additional bit to the source IP address and maintains a separate table.
• The router modifies the QoS field.
• The router uses TCP or UDP port numbers.
• The router uses a manual entry that is created and maintained in the database of the router.
5. What is a characteristic of a classful routing protocol on the network?
• All subnets are seen by all routers.
• CIDR addresses are advertised. • A subnet can be further subnetted down and advertised correctly.
• Updates received by a router in a different major network have the default mask applied.
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is an inside global address?
• 10.1.1.1
• 10.1.1.2 • 198.18.1.55
• 64.100.0.1
7. Refer to the exhibit. All networks that are shown have a /24 prefix. Assuming that all routes have been discovered by all routers in the network, which address will successfully summarize only the networks that are shown?
• 192.168.8.0/21
• 192.168.8.0/24
• 192.168.16.0/20 • 192.168.16.0/21
• 192.168.16.0/24
8. What is the CIDR prefix designation that summarizes the entire reserved Class B RFC 1918 internal address range?
• /4
• /8
• /12 • /16
• /20
9. Which NAT term refers to the IP address of your inside host as it appears to the outside network?
• inside global IP address
• outside global IP address • inside local IP address
• outside local IP address
10. A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network. Presently, there are 500 users at the head office, 200 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the 172.16.0.0/16 network?
• 172.16.0.0/20 head office
172.16.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.16.1.0/22 sales
172.16.3.0/26 research
• 172.16.48.0/19 head office
172.16.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.16.48.128 sales
172.16.48.0/26 research
• 172.16.2.0/23 head office 172.16.4.0/23 manufacturing 172.16.6.0/24 sales 172.16.7.0/26 research
• 172.16.2.0/22 head office
172.16.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.16.4.0/26 sales
172.16.4.128/25 research
11. A company using a Class B IP addressing scheme needs as many as 100 subnetworks. Assuming that variable length subnetting is not used and all subnets require at least 300 hosts, what subnet mask is appropriate to use?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0 • 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
12. Host A in the exhibit is assigned the IP address 10.118.197.55/20. How many more network devices can be added to this same subnetwork?
• 253
• 509
• 1021
• 2045 • 4093
13. Refer to the exhibit. RIP version 2 is configured as the network routing protocol and all of the default parameters remain the same. Which update is sent from R2 to R3 about the 10.16.1.0/24 network connected to R1? • 10.16.0.0/16
• 10.0.0.0/24
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 10.16.1.0/24
14. What range of networks are summarized by the address and mask, 192.168.32.0/19?
• 192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.32.0/24
• 192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.31.0/24
• 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.64.0/24 • 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.63.0/24
15. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show ip nat translations command, which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• public • overload
• private
16. How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands?
• Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
• Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
• 7 • 8
• 9
• 10
• 24
• 31
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts that are shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.65.31
• 192.168.65.32 • 192.168.65.35 • 192.168.65.60
• 192.168.65.63
• 192.168.65.64
18. What are the network and broadcast addresses for host 192.168.100.130/27? (Choose two.)
• network 192.168.100.0 • network 192.168.100.128
• network 192.168.100.130
• broadcast 192.168.100.157 • broadcast 192.168.100.159
• broadcast 192.168.100.255
19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two are valid VLSM network addresses for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.) • 192.168.1.4/30 • 192.168.1.8/30
• 192.168.1.90/30
• 192.168.1.101/30
• 192.168.1.190/30
20. When configuring NAT on a Cisco router, what is the inside local IP address?
• the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network
• the IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network • the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the inside network
• the configured IP address assigned to a host in the outside network
Set up a new Cisco 1841 Integrated Services Router ( ISR ).
Connect a computer to the router console interface.
Configure Hyper Terminal so that the computer can communicate with the router
Background / Preparation
This lab focuses on the initial setup of the Cisco 1841 ISR. If a Cisco 1841 ISR is not available, you can use another router model. The information in this lab applies to other routers. A Cisco ISR combines routing and switching functions, security, voice, and LAN and WAN connectivity into a single device, which makes it appropriate for small-sized to medium-sized businesses and for ISP-managed customers.
Some steps in this lab are normally only performed once during initial setup. These steps are indicated as optional.
The following resources are required :
Cisco 1841 ISR other comparable router.
Power Cable
Windows PC with terminal emulation program
RJ45-to-DB9 connector console cable.
Step 1 : position router and connect ground wire (Optional)
Note : this Step is optional and is required only if the router is being set up for the first time. Read through it to become familiar with the process.
a. Position the router chassis to allow unrestricted air flow for chassis cooling. Keep at least 1inch ( 2.5 4 c m ) of clear space beside the cooling inlet and exhaust vents. CAUTION: Do not place any items that weigh more than 10 pounds (4.5 kilograms) on top of the chassis, and do not stack routers on top of each other.
b. Connect the chassis to a reliable earth ground using a ring terminal and size 14AWG (2 mm ) wire using these step : NOTE: Your instructor should inform you where a reliable earth ground is
1. Strip one end of the ground wire to expose approximately 3/4 inch ( 20mm ) of conductor.
2. Crimp the 14AWG (2 mm ) green ground wire to a UL Listed / CS A certified ring terminal using a crimping tool that is recommended by the ring terminal manufacturer. The ring terminal provided on the back panel of the Cisco 1841 ISR router is suitable for a Number 6 grounding screw.
3. Attach the ring terminal to the chassis as shown in the figure below. Use a Number 2 Phillips screw driver and the screw that is supplied with the ring terminal and tighten the screw
4. Connect the other end of the ground wire to a suitable earth ground that the instructor indicates. Step 2 : Install the Compact Flash memory card ( Optional) NOTE: This step is optional and is required only if the router is being set up for the first time. To avoid wear on the memory card and ejector mechanism, do not actually perform this step. Read through it to become familiar with the process.
a. Attach a grounding strap to your wrist to avoid electro shock damage to the card. Seat the external Compact Flash memory card properly into the slot. This step depends on the type of router. Not all routers have flash cards.
b. If the router has a Compact Flash memory card, check that the ejector mechanism is fully seated. Theejector button is next to the Compact Flash memory card.
c. Connect the power cable to the ISR and to the power outlet. Step 4: Power up the ISR
a. Move the power switch on the back of the ISR to the ON position. During this step, the LEDs on the chassis turn on and off, not necessarily at the same time. The LED activity depends on what is installed in the ISR .
b. Observe the startup messages as they appear in the terminal emulation program window. While these messages are appearing, do not press any keys on the keyboard. Pressing a key interrupts the router start up process. Some examples of start up messages displayed are the amount of main memory installed and the image type of the Cisco IOS software that the computer is using. Can you find these example start up messages in the following figure? Step 5 : Reflection
a. Is there anything about this procedure that is risky?
b. Why do the router cover, all modules, and cover plates need to be installed?
c. How many routers can you safely stack on top of each other ? 1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• faster communication speeds • improved physical security
• more resistant to hacker attempts • centralized cable management
• less electrical usage
2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.) • unlabeled cables
• only two power outlets per wall in each room • poor physical security of network devices
• horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters • lack of UPS for critical devices
• two users sharing the same computer
3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• serial cable • rollover cable • straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• patch cable • console cable
4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any obsolete office equipment being stored
• all product keys for site license software • any planned growth anticipated in the near future
• the memory requirements for installed application software
5.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub • router
• switch
• access point
6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A down time of .00001% is unacceptable. • A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
• Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
• The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
• The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.
7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals • the path that the data takes through a network
• the wireless signal coverage area
• the wiring closet and access point locations • the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• repeater
• hub • router
• switch
9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
• to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment • to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
• to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements
10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated • a networking device with a modular physical configuration
• a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
• a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• scalability
• manageability
• compatibility • reliability
12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router? • An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
• ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
• An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
• ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.
13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• user workstations • switches and routers • fax machines • network equipment racks
• the point of presence
• copier
14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• does not require leasing costs for service • can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• eliminates the need for data backup • increases availability of help desk services
• does not require a Service Level Agreement
15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.) • Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report. • Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
• Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
• Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.
16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
• upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems • investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• document the final design for approval by the customer • perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• backbone area • point of presence
• network distribution facility
• intermediate distribution frame
18.
to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover • A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
• The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer. • Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade. • The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.
20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• STP
• UTP • coaxial
• fiber optic
21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• MDF
• POP • IDF
• IXP
CCNA Discovery 3 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission • initiating the network communication process
• encrypting and compressing data for transmission
• segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
• choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network
2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• routes data between networks
• converts data to bits for transmission
• delivers data reliably across the network using TCP • formats and encodes data for transmission
• transmits data to the next directly connected device
3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• incorrect subnet mask
• incorrect default gateway • loose network cable
• NIC improperly installed
4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.) • ping
• a packet sniffer
• Telnet • ipconfig
• Traceroute
5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• source IP address • destination IP address
6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model? • bits, frames, packets, segments
• frames, bits, packets, segments
• packets, frames, segments, bits
• segments, packets, frames, bits
7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• conserving support resources • network optimization
• competitive scalability • customer retention
• sales of network services
8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.) • talking to the customer on the telephone
• upgrading hardware and software • using various web tools
• making an onsite visit
• installing new equipment • with remote desktop sharing applications
9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.) • Is the NIC link light blinking?
• What is the IP address and subnet mask?
• Can the default gateway be successfully pinged? • Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
• Can you access your e-mail account?
10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first? • Can you access other web sites?
• Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the link light lit on your NIC card?
11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
• Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
• After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff. • When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• adding the hardware address • converting data to bits
• encapsulating data into frames • signal generation
• routing packets
13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.) • What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the NIC link light blinking? • Can you ping the default gateway?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
• Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?
14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
• A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration. • A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
• An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.
15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.) • opening a trouble ticket
• using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
• surveying network conditions for further analysis
• configuring new equipment and software upgrades • adhering to a problem-solving strategy
• e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer
16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 1
• Level 2 • Level 3
• Level 4
17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
• identify and prioritize alternative solutions
• isolate the cause of the problem • define the problem
• select an evaluation process
18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem? • Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
• Do you have a link light on your network card?
• Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
• What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
• Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?
19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
• improper IP address configuration on the host
• hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
• bad cables or connections at the customer site • failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers? • application, presentation, session • application, session, network
• presentation, transport, network
• presentation, network, data link
• session, transport, network
CCNA Discovery 3 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
• the number of routers between the source and destination device
• the IP address of the router nearest the destination device • the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
• whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network • the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
• DSL
• cable modem
• Ethernet • metro Ethernet
• T1
• T3
3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
• 56 kbps
• 128 kbps • 1.544 Mbps • 2.4 Mbps
4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability? • echo request issued by source • echo reply issued by source
• echo request issued by destination
• echo reply issued by destination
5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP? • peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone • uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
• pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
• limits the offered services to small geographic areas
6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access? • at a POP • at an IXP
• at a Metro Ethernet link
• on the ISP extranet
7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
• the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
• the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet • the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network • the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks
8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
• customer service
• help desk • network operations • on-site installation
9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
• customer service
• help desk • network operations • planning and provisioning
10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information? • help desk • customer service
• network operations center
• on-site installation team
• planning and provisioning
11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
• a fixed number of interfaces
• ease of repair • modularity
• low maintenance requirements
• low cost
13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
• ping
• ipconfig • traceroute
• ixp
14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
• gateway routers • IXPs
• POPs
• satellite dishes
15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth? • bits per second
• bytes per second
• hertz
• megabytes per second
• packets per second
16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
• web hosting
• planning and provisioning
• application hosting • equipment colocation
• Tier 1 ISP services
17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
• to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet • to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
• to connect a business to an ISP
• to provide data communication services to ISP customers
• to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients
18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
• 1979
• 1984 • 1991
• 1999
• 2000
19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
• voice communication
• marketing • research
• commerce
20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.) • help desk • computer support
• application readiness • network operations center
• planning and provisioning
• implementation and documentation
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
• authentication
• accreditation
• accounting
• authorization
2. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
• date and time of message
• ID of sending device
• length of message
• message ID
• checksum field
• community ID
3. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
• It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
• It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
• It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment.
• It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
4. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed?
• packet filtering
• proxy
• stateful packet inspection
• stateless packet inspection
5. A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?
• authentication
• authorization
• accounting
• accessing
6. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed? (Choose two.)
• reviewing backup logs
• performing trial backups
• performing full backups only
• replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup
• using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape
7. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information?
• query
• broadcast
• ICMP ping
• trap
• poll
8. Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• Telnet
• TFTP
• DHCP
9. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network?
• The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
• The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
• The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN.
• The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.
10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.)
• Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
• Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
• Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
• Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
• Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
11. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• IPSEC
• SSL
• HTTPS
• FTP
• TFTP
12. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
• encryption
• TCP usage
• authorization
• connection using six VTY lines
13. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network?
• network management station
• network management database
• management information base
• database information agent
14. What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.)
• Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.
• Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.
• Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.
• Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
• Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.
15. What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall?
• "clean" LAN
• intranet
• DMZ
• extranet
16. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.)
• applications
• physical addresses
• packet size
• ports
• protocols
17. When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?
• when a server needs to be monitored across the network
• when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network
• when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network
• when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP
18. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication?
• HTTPS
• IMAP
• FTPS
• IPSEC
• TLS
19. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
• daily
• differential
• full
• incremental
• partial
20. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources?
• auditing
• accounting
• authorization
• access control
• authentication
• acknowledgement
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 7 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
• The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
• The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
• The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
• The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
• The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers. Jawaban
• The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
• The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
• accessibility
• adaptability
• availability
• reliability
• scalability Jawaban
• availability
• reliability
3. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
• It utilizes TCP port 110.
• A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
• It utilizes a store and forward process.
• The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
• SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers. Jawaban
• It utilizes TCP port 110.
• SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
• Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
• Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
• Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
• Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
• Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
• Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1. Jawaban
5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
• Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
• Reliability is measured as a percent.
• Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
• Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
• The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability. Jawaban
6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
• It uses well-known port 23.
• The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
• In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
• It requires two connections between client and server.
• FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine. Jawaban
7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
• It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
• It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
• It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
• It identifies the destination application on the receiving host. Jawaban
8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
• It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
• It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
• It supports authentication.
• It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
• It encrypts packets with SSL.
• It requires additional server processing time. Jawaban
9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
• dynamic lookup
• forward lookup
• resolution lookup
• reverse lookup Jawaban
10.
What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
• dynamic
• zone transfer
• local recursive query
• root domain query
• top-level domain query
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
• If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
• The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
• If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
• The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
• Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
• maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
• maintaining the ISP server
• mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
• forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
• forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
• connection oriented
• full-duplex operation
• low overhead
• no flow control
• no error-recovery function
• reliable transmission
14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
• FTP
• HTTP
• ICMP
• PPP
• Telnet
• SMTP
15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
• DNS - 25
• FTP - 110
• HTTP - 80
• POP3 - 25
• SMTP - 25
16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
• source port with destination port
• source IP address with destination port
• source IP address and destination IP address
• source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
• SNMP
• FTP
• SMTP
• HTTPS
18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
• Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
• Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
• Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
• Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
• caching-only
• root
• second-level
• top-level
20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
• The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
• The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
• The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
• The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
21.
When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
• IP address
• MAC address
• session number
• sequence number
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration?
• show version
• show ip route
• show interface
• show ip protocols Jawaban :
• show ip protocols
2.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
• 14
• 15
• 16
• 17 Jawaban :
• 16
3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
• when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
• when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
• when more than one interior routing protocol is used
• when the company uses two or more ISPs Jawaban :
• when the company uses two or more ISPs
4. Consider this routing table entry
• R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a static route
• a default route
• a RIP route
• an OSPF route
• an EIGRP route
• a directly-connected route Jawaban :
• a RIP route
5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
• Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
• Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
• Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
• Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems. Jawaban :
Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
• metric
• subnet mask
• area identification
• hop count
• autonomous system number Jawaban :
7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v2 Jawaban :
8.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
• routerA(config-router)# no version 2
• routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
• routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
• routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
• routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway Jawaban :
9.
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
• in 30 seconds
• in 60 seconds
• in 90 seconds
• Immediately Jawaban :
10. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
• AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
• Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
• ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
• All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number. Jawaban :
11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
• to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
• to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
• to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
• to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
• to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router Jawaban :
12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
• router# show ip address
• router# show ip route
• router# show ip networks
• router# show ip interface brief
• router# debug ip protocol
• router# debug rip update Jawaban :
13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding. Jawaban :
14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
• border gateway router
• DSLAM
• web server
• interior router Jawaban :
15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
• show ip route
• show ip rip
• debug ip rip
• show ip protocols
• show ip rip database Jawaban :
16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address Jawaban :
17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• a home business with one ISP connection
• a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
• a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
• a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
• a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP Jawaban :
18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database Jawaban :
• show ip rip database
19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged. Jawaban :
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
• They are created in interface configuration mode.
• They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
• They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
• They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown. Jawaban :
• They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
• They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
• Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
• Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
• Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
• Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
• In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols. Jawaban :
• Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
• Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
• BGP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP Jawaban :
• BGP
23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
• Ping
• show arp
• Traceroute
• show ip route
• show interface
• show cdp neighbor detail Jawaban :
• Ping
• Traceroute
• show ip route
24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
• Internet
• intranet
• virtual private network
• autonomous system Jawaban :
• autonomous system
Oleh : Muhammad Aldiansyah/91849.07/Pendidikan teknik Informatika
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.) • SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
• SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices. • SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
• SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• global configuration mode
• setup mode
• ROM monitor mode • user EXEC mode
3. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• virtual terminal only
• enable mode only
• console and virtual terminal only
• enable mode and virtual terminal
• only the service password • all configured passwords
4.Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192 • Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192 • Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192 Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown • Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4 Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65
5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure? • blinks rapidly amber
• blinks rapidly green
• steady amber
• steady green
6. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? • X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
• X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
• X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes? • router# show running-config
• router# show startup-config
• router# show flash
• router# show version
8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) • VTY interface • console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode • router configuration mode
9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination? • Tab
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-N
• Up Arrow
• Right Arrow
• Down Arrow
10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to ‘LAB_A’? • Router> enable Router# configure terminal Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
• Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
11. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
• Telnet to the switch from the router console. • Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
• The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.
12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.) • Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• IP unnumbered
• No IP address
• HDLC encapsulation
• Frame Relay encapsulation • PPP encapsulation
13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.) • host name
• DHCP options • domain name
• interface IP addresses • enable secret password
• DNS server IP addresses
14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default. • Set the command history buffer size. • Recall previously entered commands.
• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet? • host name
• domain name
• DHCP address pool • DNS server IP address
16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• ATM
• CHAP • Frame Relay • HDLC
• PAP
• PPP
17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections • Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks
18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• AUX • Telnet
• modem
19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.) • platform
• routing protocol
• connected interface of neighbor device • device ID • IP addresses of all interfaces
• enable mode password
20.Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data
21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table • retains contents when power is removed • stores the startup configuration file
• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table
22. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown • Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252 Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch. • There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
• The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
• The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• All router commands are available. • Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
• Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured. • Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
25. Which command turns on a router interface? • Router(config-if)# enable
• Router(config-if)# no down
• Router(config-if)# s0 active
• Router(config-if)# interface up
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Oleh : Muhammad Aldiansyah/91849.07/Pendidikan teknik Informatika
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255 • 256
• 512
• 1024
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111 • 11100101
• 11101110
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask? • 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512
4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT? • Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks? • Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network. • Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit. • The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address. • Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14 • 30
• 62
9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0 • 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255
10.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits? • 64
• 96
• 128
• 192
• 256
• 512
12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 127 to 191
• 127 to 192 • 128 to 191
• 128 to 192
13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network? • Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
14.
refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks? • 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13 • 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to preserve registered public IP addresses
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet • to make routing protocols operate more efficiently • to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet? • The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses? • 255 and below
• 1024 and below
• 1025 and above
• 64,000 and above
19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type? • inside global
• outside local
• outside global
• private IP address
20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.) • improved security • improved router performance
• decreased processor load • improved scalability
• universal application compatibility
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
